http://nfca.org.ismmedia.com/ISM2/Mu...nager/ATEC.pdf
in the nfca rules regarding when to credit a stolen base, it says:
1) On a double steal attempt in a first and third situation
where an unsuccessful but legitimate effort is made to
put out the runner stealing second base, credit a stolen
base even if the runner on third is thrown out at home
on a continuous play.
2) In a first and third double steal credit the runner
advancing to second with a fielder's choice if the initial
throw is to anywhere but second base.
3) In the first and third double steal, credit the runner
advancing to second base with a stolen base if no throw
is made (unless indifference because of a lopsided
score was the cause of no defensive action), even if the
advance was made immediately after rounding on a
walk,
My main question is what defines a double steal? Is it automatically a double steal simply because there is a runner on 3rd? In the particular situation in question, the catcher threw to short, not the bag, and the runner at 3rd made no attempt to take home on the throw.
The scorekeeper didn't award a SB based on the throw not going to the bag. The upset parent is arguing that #3 applies because the SS chose to cut the attempt that was supposed to go to the bag, (thereby satisfying the first part of #1 and the fact that there was on runner on 3rd regardless of the runner's actions constitutes a double steal)
To me, the play is a potential double steal and the cut throw constitutes an FC, because the fielder chose to prevent a run from scoring rather than take the out at 2nd.
Thanks in advance for your wisdom.



























