Battle wrote:Agreed but it goes further than that. I've seen the ball go between the IF legs and hit the runner with an out called and nobody argues. It's as though everyone is in agreement. If they do argue, it's whether or not the ball touched the IF. What? It doesn't matter if it touched the IF. She had a play on the ball.
Why is this rule so lost?
Battle wrote:So lets say the ball hit the runner and went into no mans land where the runner on 3rd would've scored and the runner on 2nd would be on 3rd. It's called a dead ball with R1 out but clear that the IF had a play on the ball. What is the proper way to approach the umpires or appeal respectfully? Can it be appealed?
Battle wrote:So lets say the ball hit the runner and went into no mans land where the runner on 3rd would've scored and the runner on 2nd would be on 3rd. It's called a dead ball with R1 out but clear that the IF had a play on the ball. What is the proper way to approach the umpires or appeal respectfully? Can it be appealed?
PDad wrote:Battle wrote:Agreed but it goes further than that. I've seen the ball go between the IF legs and hit the runner with an out called and nobody argues. It's as though everyone is in agreement. If they do argue, it's whether or not the ball touched the IF. What? It doesn't matter if it touched the IF. She had a play on the ball.
Why is this rule so lost?
Whether IF touched the ball does matter since that is covered under a different rule for deflections.
PDad wrote:Battle wrote:So lets say the ball hit the runner and went into no mans land where the runner on 3rd would've scored and the runner on 2nd would be on 3rd. It's called a dead ball with R1 out but clear that the IF had a play on the ball. What is the proper way to approach the umpires or appeal respectfully? Can it be appealed?
There's no provision if the infielder whiffs on a batted ball where they had a play.
There's also no provision for batted balls where nobody has a play on it (e.g. up the middle).
Comp wrote:Battle wrote:So lets say the ball hit the runner and went into no mans land where the runner on 3rd would've scored and the runner on 2nd would be on 3rd. It's called a dead ball with R1 out but clear that the IF had a play on the ball. What is the proper way to approach the umpires or appeal respectfully? Can it be appealed?
What you are asking is not really an appeal, but questioning the umpire about the misapplication of a rule. You need to call time and approach the umpire that made the call. Ask what they saw and ruled and if you feel they may have misapplied a rule you can ask them if they will consult with their partner about clarification on the call. If you still do not agree with their call and feel they have misapplied the rule you can always protest.
If you do protest and win, then the umpires would place the runners where they judge they would have reached if not for the incorrect call.
Battle wrote:PDad wrote:Battle wrote:Agreed but it goes further than that. I've seen the ball go between the IF legs and hit the runner with an out called and nobody argues. It's as though everyone is in agreement. If they do argue, it's whether or not the ball touched the IF. What? It doesn't matter if it touched the IF. She had a play on the ball.
Why is this rule so lost?
Whether IF touched the ball does matter since that is covered under a different rule for deflections.
How does that apply here?