Situation: opposing runners on 1st and 3rd, 2 outs, 2 strikes (1-2 I believe), when pitching coach says 'I got her on a change right here'. I think that through for a moment and decide that it is a good call because there is a runner occupying first with no intentions to steal, so if it is in the dirt and she swings, we are good, no throw necessary.
Well, of course she swung at the change, the ball hit the plate and got to the backstop, runner on third scored easily, runner on first easily advanced to second and batter was easily safe with no throw.
The argument that ensued (civil) was that I felt that since 1st was occupied, the batter was out when she swung at the third strike. Very animated and convincing opposing coach said that since there were two outs, she has the right to run.
We shrugged and let them have it (friendly), but did not get a clear verification from the blues. Was I wrong to assume that she would be out on a dropped third with 1st occupied and two outs. Obviously, we will adjust pitch calls based on this....
SM